Posts Tagged ‘Manifestation of God’

Why did Bahaullah use the term”Manifestation of God”?

May 8, 2019

Religious Forums

https://www.religiousforums.com/threads/was-bahaullah-a-bahai-please.220052/page-7#post-6096222

#134 paarsurrey

“Manifestation of God” is a term coined by Bahaullah himself and used by him frequently for his own self. Except for the errant Pauline-Pagan-Christianity we don’t find this term so frequently used by other messengers of God like Moses and Muhammad.
Did Bahaullah coin this term and use it so often for himself as claiming of messenger/prophet of G-d in a straightforward and unequivocal form it would have entailed a death-penalty from G-d to Bahaullah?
Right, please?

Regards
_____________
From Torah:

Deuteronomy 18:20 Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)
20 “‘But if a prophet presumptuously speaks a word in my name which I didn’t order him to say, or if he speaks in the name of other gods, then that prophet must die.’
Bible Gateway passage: Deuteronomy 18:20 – Complete Jewish Bible

Quran:
AYAH al-Haqqah 69:44-46
Sher Ali[​IMG] And if he had forged and attributed any sayings to US,

We would, surely, have seized him by the right hand,
And then, surely, WE would have cut his life-vein,​

al-Haqqah 69:46

#137 paarsurrey, 

One should have known what Persian/Arabic words Bahaullah used. Kindly ascertain it and then let us know, please.
Bahaullah should have used the words messenger/prophet (rasul/nabiyy), the most commonly understood words, yet he did not do it and coined other words. Right, please?
Perhaps he had no message from God or he had no revelation from G-d, so he could not truly use these words for himself. Right, please?

Regards

 

Was Bahaullah a “Bahai”, please? (4)

April 22, 2019

Religious Forums

https://www.religiousforums.com/threads/was-bahaullah-a-bahai-please.220052/#post-6075314

 

#9 paarsurrey

Last edited: Yesterday at 2:07 PM

This is a terminology that Bahaullah invented and seemed to stretch/blow out it too much. But presently we are discussing “Was Bahaullah a Bahai’ “, please?”. If he was a “first Bahai” as our friend @shunyadragon would like us to believe, then we human beings would like that that claim should be from him from Iqan the “Book of Certitude” the core book of Bahaullah.
Sorry, we are much interested in Bahaullah, rather than “Bahaism”, please.

Regards

#12 paarsurrey

Sorry friend, one’s post does not answer the simple question if Bahaullah was a “Bahai” or not, or its another connotation suggested by our friend @shunyadragon if Bahaullah was a “first Bahai” or not in the Iqan period. If he got converted to it in the pre-Iqan period , then who got him converted from which previous religion Babi-non-Islamic or Shia-Islam, he did not belong to Sunni Islam, for sure. Right, please?
The topic, please.

Regards