Did Vedas exist before The Bhagavad Gita ?

Paarsurrey wrote:

Sep 13, 2016#11

“The Gita is after the Veda.
the author of Veda is unknown, some peple assume the author of the samhita are the rishi mention in the sukta/mantras. but traditionally the rishis are considered mantra dhrashta (seer/observer/discoverer) not rachna (writer/creator/maker).” One may like to see his full post of
Sunday at 10:08 PM #10
  • Friend @sayak83@sayak83 says:
    “The authorship implies the human rishi to whom the revelation came. The word apurusheya means “revealed” i.e. “not created by human thought”. It does not mean that a human being did not exist to whom the verse was revealed to and who first recited it.
    Gita is recited later than the Veda-s but is also a revelation.” One may like to see his full post of
    Thursday at 9:05 PM #6

Regards

Paarsurrey wrote:

Sep 17, 2016#25

Did Vedas exist before The Bhagavad Gita ?

Can we summarize from the posts written hitherto in the thread that Veda was first and Bhagvad Gita was a later scripture? Right? Please
Anybody, please
Regards

 

 

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